if preload is the degree of the stretching of the muscle at the end of diastole (basically, the more vol you have, the more the stretching), then lasix would lower that, right?also, afterload is the resistance to ejection of blood from the ventricle, and the more volume you'll have, the more the resitance, then lasix would lower that as well, right?
and stroke vol would be low or high? because afterload is indirectly proportional to sv, but preload is directly proportional to it:(
pls help, am i looking too much into it?
thanks
lasix doesnt influence contractility, so then the stroke volume would be high or low? because afterload is inversely proportional with stroke volume, but directly proportional with stroke volume, and since b
i think what throws me off is the fact that they are indirectly proportional...please explain
nursing student, thanks;)
i DO get it now, thank you. trying to look at the definitions differently (like you have mentioned) was a big help! yes, those are different lectures:/
Doctor - I figure you are either a nursing student or a premed student who is trying to figure out the workings of the heart. To make things simple, think of preload as the volume that gets into the heart, and afterload as the resistance coming out of the heart. Lasix decrease the preload but not the afterload. The stoke volume is the about of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction. This being said, lasix would decrease the stroke volume because there is less diastolic filling of the heart. Got it? Don't give up. Cardiology is not easy. What influence the afterload and the contractility will be a separate lecture.
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